Receiving the Spirit and Baptism in the Spirit
The Link Between Acts and the Gospels
Part 2
The word for 'receive' in John 20:22 can also be translated as 'take'. In fact, on the other six instances this word is used in the New Testament, it is translated as 'take'. Could Jesus have been telling the disciples to take the Holy Spirit and go to the Gentiles?
Yes, it is quite likely that he was telling them to take the Holy Spirit with them and go to the Gentiles.
Can we tell whether Jesus was saying As the father has sent me, I am sending you.....Take (receive) the Holy Spirit (now) and if you forgive anybody their sins, I will forgive them OR As the father has sent me, I am sending you.....take the Holy Spirit (which I am about to give you) and if you forgive anybody their sins, I will forgive them ?
Yes. The Greek word that is translated as 'receive' in John 20:22 is used seven times in the Bible. On all other occasions it is translated as 'take'. Looking at the context of John 20:22, it is clear that this is what Jesus was saying to the disciples. In John 20:21, Jesus said he was sending the disciples to preach to the nations. In John 20:22, Jesus said he wanted the disciples to take the Holy Spirit with them and in John 20:23 Jesus says that whoever they forgave, would be forgiven. This agrees with Matthew 16:17-20 in which Jesus gave Peter the keys of the Kingdom and said what ever you bind on earth will be bound in Heaven and whatever you loose on earth will be loosed in Heaven.
Furthermore, this is why the believers did not receive the Spirit in Acts 8 until the disciples arrived and opened the door to the Samaritans (Acts 8:14-17) and subsequently to the Gentiles as well (Acts 10:44-46).
Reading John 20:19-23 and Luke 24:36-49 together, it is apparent that Jesus was telling the disciples to stay in Jerusalem until they received the Holy Spirit and then to take him where ever they went, baptizing believers in the name of the Father the Son and the Holy Spirit. (Matt 28:16-20)
Which of these explanations agrees with other passages in the Bible that talk about receiving the Holy Spirit?
The later, because receiving the Holy Spirit cannot be separated from Baptism in the Holy Spirit because they are the same thing. (See Luke 24:49 Acts 1:4-5 Acts 2:4 Acts:2:38)
What about Luke 11:13. How do you explain that?
Jesus was talking to the Jews. The Jews were already God's children, but God wants them to Receive the Spirit (be Baptized in the Spirit) so they can partake of a better covenant.
For the Gentiles, receiving the Spirit, Baptism in the Spirit and regeneration are the same thing.
This verse can arguably be used to show that receiving the Holy Spirit is not necessary for Gentiles to become children of God. People who argue this invariably believe in two types of receiving (The Acts type and the John type) and that this verse refers to the Acts type of receiving.
There is, however, only one type of receiving and this is the same as Baptism in the Spirit which makes Gentiles Children of God, empowers both Jews and Gentiles alike and entitles both Jew and Gentile the right to partake of the New Covenant.
If this verse was for the Gentiles, the reason the Father can give the Holy Spirit to his Gentile children is because of his foreknowledge. (Romans 8:29-30)
John 1:12 and Acts 10:47 use the same Greek word for receive. These two verses together show that Baptism in the Spirit is necessary to become a child of God and that this occurs when we believe (ie at conversion).
Which of these explanations agrees with the other Gospels?
The later, because the other Gospels make no mention of the disciples receiving the Holy Spirit before his departure to be with the Father. This would be the only place that it is recorded in the bible if it were true. It is unlikely that John intended the former given John 7:39 and John 16:7-8. As Luke gives a more detailed account of that occasion (Luke 24:36-49), it is unlikely that he would leave out a significant event such as the disciples receiving the Holy Spirit.
Which of these explanations agrees with John 7:39 and John 16:7-8?
The later, because Jesus had not gone away or been fully glorified before his ascension.
Could Luke 24:36-49 John 20:19-23 and Acts 1:4-5 be parallel passages?
Yes. These passages refer to the imminence of the baptism in the Holy Spirit which Jesus announced on the day of his resurrection. This was fulfilled on the day of Pentecost, 10 days after Christ's ascension, 50 days after the resurrection, when the disciples received the Holy Spirit, were baptized in the Holy Spirit and were filled with the Holy Spirit all in one go!